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Skills level · Taxation

Taxation · 2023

Every objective and theory question in this paper, with answers where we have them, and the topic notes to revise each one.

14 questions14 theory12 topics to revise
Source: ICAN Pathfinder, Skills Level Examination, Taxation, Pathfinder, 2023

May 2023 diet

0 objective and 7 theory
Time allowed: 31/4 hours (including 15 minutes reading time). Attempt five out of seven questions.
0 objective7 theory135 theory marks set
No.SectionMarksCovers
Q1Section A (compulsory)30Income of a partnership and the tax of each partner
Q2Section B20Contract of employment against contract for employment, and rules of residence for six categories of individuals
Q3Section B20When an assessment becomes final, time limits, contents of a notice of objection and the notice of refusal to amend
Q4Section B20As part of the induction programme for the newly recruited staff of your firm of tax consultants, you have been saddl...
Q5Section C15Constitutional and other solutions to multiple taxation, and its causes
Q6Section C15Fountain Hotels Limited is a group of hotels located in many parts of North Central Nigeria providing accommodation a...
Q7Section C15Six tax incentives for an export processing zone enterprise, and penalties under section 55(1) of CITA

Theory questions Written questions

1
Theory question 1Section A (compulsory)
30 marks

Fadeke, Femi, Kola and Gbenga have been in partnership as medical practitioners for eight years. The statement of profit or loss for the year ended December 31, 2021 is as follows: N N Gross income 224,500,000 Direct expenses (48,700,000) Gross profit 175,800,000 Deduct: Salaries and wages 72,000,000 Rent and rates 1,500,000 Transport and travelling 825,000 Telephone and telex 210,000 Motor running expenses 680,000 Allowance for doubtful debts 310,000 Miscellaneous expenses 1,450,000 Other professional charges 360,000 Audit fees 500,000 Bank charges and commission 1,122,500 Depreciation 1,240,600 Interest on loan: Fadeke 300,000 Femi 240,000 Kola 180,000 Gbenga 150,000 Interest on capital: Fadeke 1,250,000 Femi 1,250,000 Kola 1,250,000 Gbenga 1,250,000 Passage and leave allowance: Fadeke 660,000 Femi 660,000 151 Kola 660,000 Gbenga 660,000 88,708,100 Net profit for the year 87,091,900 Additional information: (i) Included in salaries and wages is N1,200,000 paid for each of the partners. (ii) Rent and rates comprise: N Rent paid to partner – Fadeke 1,440,000 Rates 60,000 1,500,000 (iii) Miscellaneous expenses: These include: Donation to a church in the hometown of Fadeke 50,000 Allowance paid to the domestic staff of Femi 240,000 Cost of repairs and maintenance of the residence of each partner totaling 840,000 Office repairs 320,000 1,450,000 (iv) Captial allowances agreed with the revenue was N980,000 (v) Profits are to be shared equally amongst the partners (vi) Fadeke and Femi are married with three and two children, respectively (vii) Fadeke has a life assurance policy of N960,000 on which she pays N96,000 annually as premium (viii) Fadeke maintains her aged father who is over 68 years

RequiredFor the relevant assessment year:
a

Compute the income of the partnership

5 marks
b

Compute the income tax liability of each of the partners (25 Marks) 152

Suggested answer

a) Fadeke, Femi, Kola and Gbenga Computation of computed income of the partnership For the year ended December 31, 2021 (Assessment year 2022) N N Net profit for the year 87,091,900 Add: Allowance for doubtful debts 310,000 Donation to a church in the home town of Fadeke 50,000 Allowance paid to the domestic staff of Femi 240,000 Repairs and maintenance of the residence of each partner 840,000 Depreciation 1,240,600 2,680,600 Adjusted profit 89,772,500 Capital allowances (980,000) Computed income 88,792,500

b) Computation of partners’ income tax liabilities Fadeke Femi Kola Gbenga Total N N N N N Share of profit 22,198,125 22,198,125 22,198,125 22,198,125 88,792,500 Interest on loan 300,000 240,000 180,000 150,000 870,000 Interest on capital 1,250,000 1,250,000 1,250,000 1,250,000 5,000,000 Passage and leave allowance 660,000 660,000 660,000 660,000 2,640,000 Partner’s salary 1,200,000 1,200,000 1,200,000 1,200,000 4,800,000 Rent 1,440,000 0 0 0 1,440,000 Tax exempt items 27,048,125 25,548,125 25,488,125 25,458,125 103,542,500 Life insurance premium (96,000) 0 0 0 (96,000) Gross income 26,952,125 25,548,125 25,488,125 25,458,125 103,446,500 Consolidated relief allowance N200,000 or 1% of gross income, whichever is higher plus 20% of gross income (5,659,946) (5,365,106) (5,352,506) (5,346,206) (21,723,764) Chargeable income 21,292,179 20,183,019 20,135,619 20,111,919 81,722,736 Income tax liability First N300,000 @ 7% 21,000 21,000 21,000 21,000 84,000 Next N300,000 @ 11% 33,000 33,000 33,000 33,000 132,000 Next N500,000 @ 15% 75,000 75,000 75,000 75,000 300,000 Next N500,000 @ 19% 95,000 95,000 95,000 95,000 380,000 Next N1,600,000 @ 21% 336,000 336,000 336,000 336,000 1,344,000 Next N18,092,179 @ 24% 4,342,123 4,342,123 Next N16,983,019 @ 24% 4,075,925 4,075,925 Next N16,935,619 @ 24% 4,064,549 4,064,549 Next N16,911,919 @ 24% 4,058,861 4,058,861 Income tax payable 4,902,123 4,635,925 4,624,549 4,618,861 18,781,458 158 Withholding tax: Rent (144,000) (144,000) Interest on loan (30,000) (24,000) (18,000) (15,000) (87,000) Net income tax payable 4,728,123 4,611,925 4,606,549 4,603,861 18,550,458

Examiner’s report The question tests candidates’ knowledge of the computation of income of a partnership and the income tax liabilities of partners. This being a compulsory question, about 100% of the candidates attempted the question. The performance of the candidates was average. The commonest pitfalls of the candidates were their inability to identify allowable expenses in the determination of computed income of the partnership and compute the consolidated relief allowance. Candidates are advised to read widely and be conversant with the provisions of the Personal Income Tax Act Cap. P8 LFN 2004 (as amended) before sitting for subsequent examinations to enhance better performance.

Marking guide

a) Computation of the income of the partnership Marks Marks Heading - Name

- Computation of computed income - Assessment years Net profit Allowance for doubtful debts Donation to church Domestic allowance Repairs and maintenance Depreciation Capital allowances ½ ½ ½ ½ ½ ½ ½ ½ ½ ½ 5 159

b) Computation of partners’ income tax liabilities Share of profit – (½ mark each for any correct amount) Interest on loan – (½ mark each for any correct amount) Interest on capital - (½ mark each for any correct amount) Postage and leave allowance - (½ mark each for any correct amount) Partners’ salary - (½ mark each for any correct amount) Rent Life insurance premium Consolidated relief allowance – (¼ mark each for any correct amount) Income tax liability: (1/2 mark each for any correct amount) Withholding tax - Rent

- Interest on loan (1/4 mark for each correct amount) Total 2 2 2 2 2 ¼ ¼ 1 12 ½ 1 25 30

Source: ICAN Pathfinder, Skills Level Examination, Taxation, May 2023, Question 1
2
Theory question 2Section B
20 marks
a 8b 12

The Personal Income Tax Act Cap.P8 LFN, 2004 (as amended) defines “employment”, whilst the Labour Act Cap.L1 LFN, 2004 (as amended), defines “contract of employment.” An individual’s liability to income tax is often determined according to whether or not a person receiving the income is resident in a State for a particular year of assessment. A taxpayer is, therefore, liable to the tax authority of the territory in which he is deemed to be resident for a year of assessment. Required:

a

Differentiate between “contract of employment” and “contract for employment”.

8 marks
b

Explain the rules guiding the determination of residence for SIX categories of individuals for tax purposes.

12 marks
Suggested answer

(a) Contract of employment and contract for employment The Personal Income Tax Act Cap. P8 LFN 2004 (as amended) defines employment to include any appointment or office, whether public or otherwise, for which remuneration is payable, and “employee” and “employer” shall be construed accordingly. However, the Labour Act 1994, defines a contract of employment as “any agreement whether written or verbal, expressed or implied, whereby one person agrees to serve the employer as a worker.” A contract for employment is an agreement whereby a person is engaged as an independent contractor, such as a self-employed person or vendor engaged for a fee to carry out an assignment or a project for the company. In a contract for employment, there is no employer-employee relationship in the contract and the self- employed person is not covered by the Labour Act. An individual under a contract of employment is commonly referred to as an employee, while an individual under a contract for employment is referred to as an independent contractor or self-employed person. The following distinctions can be drawn between a contract of employment and a contract for employment:

i. An individual under a contract of employment earns remuneration (that is, salary), while an individual under a contract for employment earns profit;

ii. An individual under a contract of employment is assessed to tax on 160 actual year basis, while an individual under a contract for employment is assessed to tax on preceding year basis;

iii. A self-employed person is required to register for value added tax, while an employee is not required to do so; and An employee has the right not to be unlawfully dismissed and to receive redundancy payment and other employment rights, while a self-employed person does not have such rights.

(b) Residence of different categories of individuals Liability to income tax is often determined according to whether a person receiving income is resident in a State for a particular year of assessment. A taxpayer is therefore liable to the tax authority of the territory in which he is deemed to be resident for a year of assessment. The following rules guide the determination of residence: (i) An individual whether in employment or whose only sources of income are unearned income is deemed to be resident for a year of assessment in the territory in which he has a place available for his domestic use in Nigeria on the first day of January of the assessment year, and does not include any hotel, rest house or other place at which he is temporarily lodging;

(ii) An executor is deemed to be resident in the territory in which the deceased individual was last deemed to be resident or would have been deemed to be resident if the law had been in force prior to the date of his death;

(iii) A trustee of any trust or settlement is deemed to be resident where all the income of the settlement or trust for a year of assessment arises. Where the income arises in more than one territory or where the tax authority cannot be determined, the Federal Inland Revenue Service is the tax authority;

(iv) Partners in partnership are deemed to be resident where the principal office or the place of the partnership is situated on the first day of that year or is first established during the year;

(v) A village or an indigenous community is deemed to be resident in the territory in which the community is found;

(vi) An itinerant worker is deemed to be resident where he is found in a year of assessment;

(vii) An individual not being a person assessable by FIRS (S. 2, 1 (b) ) who holds a foreign employment on the 1st day of January in a year of assessment or who first becomes liable to income tax in Nigeria for that year by reason of his entering that employment during that year, shall be deemed to be resident for that year in the territory in which the 161 principal office of his employer is situated on that day or on the day his foreign employment commences as the case may be; and

(viii) An individual whose only source of earned income arising in Nigeria on the 1st day of January in a year of assessment was a pension, or who had a place or principal place on that day shall be deemed to be resident for that year in the territory in which that place or principal place of residence was situated on that day.

Examiner’s report The question tests candidates’ knowledge of the differences between “contract of employment” and “contract for employment”, and rules guiding the determination of residence of individuals for tax purposes. About 60% of the candidates attempted the question but the performance was average. The commonest pitfalls of the candidates were their inability to differentiate between “contract of employment” and “contract for employment”. Some of the candidates could not explain the rules guiding the determination of residence of individuals for tax purposes. Candidates are advised to read widely by making use of relevant texts on taxation of individuals, ICAN Pathfinder and Study Text.

Marking guide Marks a) Differentiation between “contract of employment” and “contract for employment” (2 marks each for any correct point subject to a maximum of 4 points) 8

b) Explanation of the rules guiding the determination of residence for six different categories of individuals for tax purposes (2 marks each for any correct point subject to a maximum of 6 points) Total 12 20 162

Source: ICAN Pathfinder, Skills Level Examination, Taxation, May 2023, Question 2
3
Theory question 3Section B
20 marks

Taxation has been defined as the imposition of compulsory levies on individuals and entities by governments in most countries in the world. The primary objective of taxation is essentially to generate revenue or raise money for government expenditure on social welfare. You were appointed as the accountant of Specks Nigeria Limited on August 31, 2022. Based on self assessment, the company filed the audited financial statements for year ended December 31, 2021, together with its tax computations on June 7, 2022, and the relevant tax liabilities were fully paid on same date. On August 31, 2022, the Federal Inland Revenue Service raised an assessment that was not in line with the tax returns. At the meeting of the directors held in September 2022, this issue was discussed and you were mandated to quickly address same so that the assessment would not become final and conclusive. Required:

a

When will an assessment become final and conclusive?

5 marks
b

Discuss the following in relation to objection and appeal procedures: (i) Time limit for objection and appeal (4 Marks) (ii) Contents of a notice of objection (4 Marks) (iii) Amendment of assessment and notice of refusal to amend (NORA) (7 Marks) 153

Suggested answer

a) Final and conclusive assessment An assessment raised on a company is said to be final and conclusive where:

i. No valid objection or appeal has been lodged against the amount of total profit assessed on a company within the time statutorily allowed for that purpose; or

ii. The amount of total profit has been agreed by the taxpayer after his objection; or

iii. The amount of total profit has been determined on appeal.

b) i. Time limit for objection and appeal If any company disputes a tax assessment raised on it by the tax authority, it may give a notice of objection, to the Federal Inland Revenue Service, seeking a review or revision of the assessment. However, the time limit for objection is within thirty days from the date of service of the notice of assessment. Also, a company aggrieved by an assessment or demand notice made upon it by the FIRS or aggrieved by any action or decision of the FIRS, such as refusal to amend an assessment; may appeal against such decision or assessment or demand notice within thirty days from the date on which a copy of the order or decision which is being appealed against is made, or deemed to have been made by the FIRS.

ii. Contents of a notice of objection In line with the provision of Section 69 of Companies Income Tax Act Cap C21 LFN 2004 (as amended), for a notice of objection to be valid, it must: ➢ Be in writing, delivered in persons, by courier service or via electronic mail and addressed to the Chairman, Federal Inland Revenue Service; ➢ State the grounds of objection, namely:

• Amount of assessable and total profits of the company for the relevant assessment year; and

• Amount of tax which the taxpayer claims is payable for the year of assessment. ➢ Be raised within thirty days of the date of service of the notice of assessment. 163

iii. Amendment of assessment and refusal to amend If any company disputes an assessment raised on it by the FIRS, it may apply to the FIRS, by notice of objection in writing, delivered in person, by courier service, email or any other electronic means, as directed by the Service, to review and revise the assessment made upon it. Therefore, the company must ensure that its objection: ➢ Is made within thirty days from the date of service of the notice of assessment; and ➢ Contains the ground of objection to the assessment, that is:

• The amount of assessable and total profits of the company for the relevant year of assessment; and

• The amount of tax payable for the year, which the company claims should be stated on the notice of assessment. On receipt of the notice of objection referred to above, the FIRS may require the company giving the notice of objection to furnish such particulars as the FIRS may deem necessary and to produce all books or other documents relating to the profits of the company, and may summon any person who may be able to give evidence relating to the assessment to attend for examination by an officer of the FIRS on oath or otherwise. In the event of any company assessed, which has objected to an assessment made upon it, agreeing with the FIRS as to the amount at which it is liable to be assessed, the assessment shall be amended accordingly, and notice of the tax payable shall be served upon such company. However, if the company fails to agree the amount at which the company is liable to be assessed with the FIRS, the FIRS shall give notice of refusal to amend the assessment as desired by such company and may revise the assessment to such amount as the FIRS may, according to the best of its judgement, determine and give notice of its revised assessment and of the tax payable together with the notice of refusal to amend the revised assessment.

Examiner’s report The question tests candidates’ knowledge of when an assessment can be final and conclusive. Additionally, candidates are expected to explain objection and appeal procedures. About 50% of the candidates attempted the question but the performance was average. The commonest pitfall of the candidates was their inability to explain the amendment of assessment and notice of refusal to amend (NORA). 164 Candidates are advised to read widely and make use of the Institute’s Pathfinder and Study Text in their preparations for subsequent examinations.

Marking guide Marks Marks a) When an assessment is final and conclusive i No valid objection 1 ii. No valid appeal 1 iii. Time statutorily allowed (30 days) 1 iv. Total profit agreed by the taxpayer after objection 1 v. Total profit has been determined on appeal 1 5 b) i. Time limit for objection and appeal Notice of objection 1 Time limit for objection (30 days after the date of receipt of assessment) 1 Appeal against such decision or assessment 1 Time limit for appeal against such decision or assessment (30 days after the date of receipt of refusal to amend) 1 4 ii. Contents of a notice of objection ➢ Be in writing ½ ➢ Addressed to the Chairman (FIRS) ½ ➢ State grounds of objection

- Amount of assessable and total profits 1 - Amount of tax payable 1 ➢ Notice of objection to be raised within 30 days of the date of service of notice of assessment 1 4 iii. Amendment of assessment and notice of refusal of amend (NORA) ➢ Notice of objection must be in writing and delivered in person, courier servicer or any electronic device 1 ➢ Objection to be filed within 30days from the date of service of the notice of assessment 1 ➢ Grounds of objection:

- Amount of assessable and total profits 1 - Amount of tax payable 1 ➢ Furnishing of such particulars as the FIRS may deem necessary 1 ➢ Agreeing with the FIRS as to the amount at which it is liable to be assessed 1 ➢ FIRS shall give notice of refusal to amend the assessment 1 7 Total 20 165

Source: ICAN Pathfinder, Skills Level Examination, Taxation, May 2023, Question 3
4
Theory question 4Section B
20 marks
a 5b 15

As part of the induction programme for the newly recruited staff of your firm of tax consultants, you have been saddled with the responsibility of making a presentation on companies income tax computation for beginners during the firm’s training session. You are provided with the following information relating to Wizzy-Baddo Limited, which commenced business on September 1, 2020: Adjusted Profit (N) Period to December 31, 2020 6,937,500 Year ended December 31, 2021 9,300,500 The following assets were acquired as follows: N June 5, 2020 – Land and building 5,467,500 July 1, 2020 – Motor vehicle 10,000,000 October 15, 2020 – Machinery 4,375,000 February 28, 2021 – Furniture 3,458,000 May 1, 2021 – Delivery van 4,750,000

RequiredFor the relevant assessment years;
a

State the basis periods for assessable profits and qualifying capital expenditure

5 marks
b

Compute the capital allowances

15 marks
Suggested answer

a) Wizzy – Baddo Limited Determination of basis periods for assessable profit Year of assessment Basis period 2021 1/9/2020 - 31/12/2020 2022 1/1/2021 – 31/12/2021 Determination of basis periods for qualifying capital expenditure (QCE) Year of assessment Basis period 2021 1/9/2020 - 31/12/2020 2022 1/1/2021 – 31/12/2021 166

b) Computation of capital allowances for 2021 and 2022 assessment years Assessment year

Examiner’s report The question tests the candidates’ knowledge of the determination of basis periods and computations of capital allowances on commencement of business. About 70% of the candidates attempted the question but performance was fair. The commonest pitfalls of the candidates were their inability to ascertain the basis periods and prorate annual allowance on commencement of business. Candidates are advised to read ICAN Study Text and Pathfinders when preparing for subsequent examinations to ensure better performance in future. I.A AA Inv. A Land and building 15% 10% Motor vehicle 50% 25% Machinery 50% 25% 10% Furniture 25% 20% Delivery van 50% 25% Capital allowances 2021 (1/9/20 - 31/12/20) W.D.V c/f to A.Y 2022 Cost I.A AA Inv A N 5,467,500 (820,125) (154,913) (154,913) 4,492,462 N 10,000,000 (5,000,000) (416,667)

- ________ 4,583,333 N 4,375,000 (2,187,500) (182,292) - 2,005,205 N

- - - N

- - - N - 8,00,625 753,872 437,500 9,198,997 2022 (1/1/21 – 31/12/21) Cost - - - 3,458,000 4,750,000 - I.A - - - (864,500) (2,375,000) 3,239,500 AA (464,738) (1,250,000) (546,875) (518,700) (593,750) 3,374,063 W.D.V c/f to A.Y. 2023 4,027,724 3,333,333 1,458,333 2,074,800 1,781,250 6,613,563 167

Marking guide

(a) Basis periods for assessable profits and QCE Marks Marks Name of company ½ Heading - assessable profit ¼ 2021 assessment year ½ 2022 assessment year ½ Basis period - 1/9/2020 – 31/12/2022 ½ - 1/1/2021 – 31/12/2021 ½ Heading - qualifying capital expenditure (QCE) ¼ 2021 assessment year ½ 2022 assessment year ½ Basis period - 1/9/2022 – 31/12/2022 ½ - 1/1/2021 – 31/12/2021 ½ 5 (b) Computation of capital allowances Heading - Computation of capital allowances ½ - 2021 and 2022 assessment years ½ 2021 assessment year ½ Cost (½ mark each for any correct amount) 1½ Initial allowance (½ mark for any correct amount) 1½ Total of initial allowance 1 Annual allowance (½ mark for each correct amount) 1½ Total of annual allowance ½ 2022 assessment year ½ Cost (½ mark each for any correct amount) 1 Initial allowance (½ mark for any correct amount) 1 Total of initial allowance 1 Investment allowance 1 Annual allowance (½ mark for any correct amount) 2½ Total of annual allowance ½ 15 Total 20

Source: ICAN Pathfinder, Skills Level Examination, Taxation, May 2023, Question 4
5
Theory question 5Section C
15 marks
a 10b 5

Multiple taxation is a tax regime under which various and similar taxes are imposed on taxpayers by different tiers of government. This has become a national problem discouraging taxpayers from performing their civic responsibilities. The 1999 Constitution of the Federal Republic of Nigeria seeks to eliminate multiple taxation at all levels of government as provided for in Part II, paragraph 7 to 10. 154 Required:

a

Explain FOUR Constitutional and other possible solutions provided on how to eliminate multiple taxes.

10 marks
b

State FIVE possible causes of multiple taxation.

5 marks
Suggested answer

(a) The 1999 Constitution of the Federal Republic of Nigeria seeks to eliminate multiple taxation at all levels of government as provided for in Part II, Paragraphs 7 to 10, which state that:

i. In the exercise of its powers to impose any tax or duty on: ➢ Capital gains, incomes or profits or persons other than companies; and ➢ Documents or transactions by way of stamp duties. The National Assembly may, subject to such conditions as it may prescribe, provide that the collection of any such tax or duty or the administration of the law imposing it, shall be carried out by the government of a state or other authority of a state. 168

ii. Where an Act of the National Assembly provides for the collection of tax or duty on capital gains, incomes or profit or the administration of any law by an authority of a state in accordance with paragraph 7 thereof, it shall regulate the liability of persons to such tax or duty in such manner as to ensure that such tax or duty is not levied on the same person by more than one state.

iii. A House of Assembly may, subject to such conditions as it may prescribe, make provisions for the collection of any tax, fee or rate or for the administration of the law providing for such collection by a local government council.

iv. Where a law of a House of Assembly provides for the collection of tax, fee or rate or for the administration of such law by a local government council in accordance with the provisions hereof, it shall regulate the liability of persons to the tax, fee or rate in such manner as to ensure that such tax, fee or rate is not levied on the same person, in respect of the same liability by more than one local government council. Other possible solutions to multiplicity of taxes in Nigeria include: i. Streamlining the number of taxes in Nigeria in view of the low yields of many of the taxes. This will involve the review of current statutory provisions in Nigeria; ii. Reviewing all the existing taxes in Nigeria and harmonise where necessary, as recommended by various study groups; iv. Reviewing the Constitution to address the overlap in taxing rights and limit the number of taxes that can be imposed by different levels; iv. Abolishing any unorthodox method of tax collection and implementing technology for tax administration; and v. Limiting the number of revenue agencies.

(b) The possible causes of multiple taxation in Nigeria are:

i. The number of taxes which local governments have constitutional rights to collect is a major cause of multiple taxation;

ii. Lack of funding, particularly, for most States may result in multiple taxation where the Service attempts to source for funds through levying of tax notwithstanding whether such tax is being levied either by the Federal or local governments;

v. Some of the State governments deliberately deny their local governments the revenue due to them. Consequently, a local 169 government as a way of survival, desperately and aggressively focuses on any revenue drive that will generate revenue to them;

iv. Lack of tax education and awareness;

v. All the tiers of government usually fail to adequately fund their departments and agencies;

vi. Multiplicity of revenue agencies;

vii. Overlapping taxing rights as contained in the Constitution and the Taxes and Levies (Approved List for Collection) Act, Cap. T2 LFN, 2004; and

viii. Manual tax administration system and unorthodox tax collection.

Examiner’s report The question tests candidates’ understanding of the possible causes, and constitutional and other possible solutions to the elimination of multiple taxation. About 80% of the candidates attempted the question but performance was fair. The commonest pitfalls of the candidates were their inability to explain the constitutional provisions on how to eliminate multiple taxation. Candidates are advised to read widely before sitting for the Institute’s examinations and be abreast of developments in tax matters.

Marking guide Marks Marks (a) Elimination of multiple taxes For stating that: - The 1999 Constitution of the Federal Republic of Nigeria seeks to eliminate multiple taxation;

- The National Assembly provides for the collection of any duty or tax and it shall be carried out by the government of a State or any other authority;

- An Act of National Assembly regulates the liability of persons to specified taxes and such taxes shall not be levied on the same person by more than one State;

- A House of Assembly makes provisions for the collection of specified taxes, levies, etc; and 1 1 1 1 170

- A House of Assembly shall ensure that the tax is not levied on the same person in respect of the same liability by more than one local government council. 1 Other possible solutions (1 mark each for any correct solution) 5 10

(b) Causes of multiple taxation (1 mark each for any 5 correct solutions) 5 15

Source: ICAN Pathfinder, Skills Level Examination, Taxation, May 2023, Question 5
6
Theory question 6Section C
15 marks

Fountain Hotels Limited is a group of hotels located in many parts of North Central Nigeria providing accommodation and other hospitality services. It renders its returns at the end of each month in accordance with the Value Added Tax Act 2004 (as amended). The following are the details of the transactions for the month of July 2022: N VAT on outdoor catering services 600,000 VAT on food 360,000 VAT on drinks 240,000 VAT on other vatable hotel services 270,000 VAT on drinks purchased 150,000 VAT on foodstuff purchased 210,000 VAT on kitchen equipment 480,000 VAT on professional services 240,000 You are also provided with the following additional information: (i) 30% of outdoor catering services were on credit (ii) 20% of food and drinks were on credit (iii) Other vatable hotel services were paid for in full. (iv) 25% VAT on drinks and foodstuff purchased were on credit. (v) VAT on kitchen equipment and professional services were paid for in full. Required:

a

Compute the VAT remittable to the Federal Inland Revenue Service in respect of July 2022 transactions.

9 marks
b

Write short notes on the following: (i) Revenue VAT (2 Marks) (ii) Zero rated supplies and services (2 Marks) (iii) VAT on export (2 Marks) 155

Suggested answer

(a) Fountain Hotels Limited VAT remittable to the Federal Inland Revenue Service (FIRS) In respect of July 2022 transactions Output VAT N N VAT on outdoor catering (70% of N600,000) 420,000 VAT on drinks (80% of N360,000) 288,000 VAT on foodstuff (80% of N240,000) 192,000 900,000 Less Input VAT VAT on drinks (75% of N150,000 ) 112,500 VAT on foodstuff (75% of N210,000) 157,500 (270,000) Amount remittable 630,000

NOTE Based on the provisions of the Finance Act, 2019, VAT remittance is now “cash based” as against “invoice based”.

(b) i. Revenue VAT This is the tax payable on the sale of taxable goods or services which is ultimately paid by the final consumer of the goods or services. 171

ii. Zero-rated supplies and services Certain goods and services are classified as zero-rate. These goods and services are within the ambit of VAT Act, but the applicable rate is 0%. These include: - Non oil exports; - Goods and services purchased by diplomats; and - ’Humanitarian donor funded project includes project undertaken by non- government organisations, religious and social clubs or societies recognised by law whose activity is not for profit and in the public interest.

iii. VAT on export All exported goods and services are exempted from VAT. This is in line with the concept of destination principle, which allows for value added taxes to be retained by the country where the taxed product is being sold / consumed.

Examiner’s report The question tests the candidates’ knowledge of computation of VAT remittable to Federal Inland Revenue Service (FIRS), taking into consideration hotel services rendered on credit and credit purchases made. Over 80% of the candidates attempted the question and performance was above average. The commonest pitfall was the candidates’ inability to compute VAT remittable to Federal Inland Revenue Service (FIRS), taking into consideration hotel credit services rendered and credit purchases made. Candidates are advised to read relevant study materials, VAT Act and circulars issued by FIRS for subsequent examinations.

Marking guide

(a) Remittance of VAT to FIRS Marks Marks Heading - Name ½ - VAT remittable to FIRS ½ - In respect of July 2022 transactions ½ Output VAT - Outdoor catering 1½ - VAT on drinks 1½ - VAT on foodstuff 1½ Output VAT - VAT on drinks 1½

- VAT on foodstuff 1½ 9 172

(b) i. Revenue VAT (1 mark each for any two points) 2 ii. Zero-rated supplier and services (1 mark each for any two points) 2

iii. VAT on export Exemption of exported goods from VAT 1 Concept of destination principle 1 6 Total 15

Source: ICAN Pathfinder, Skills Level Examination, Taxation, May 2023, Question 6
7
Theory question 7Section C
15 marks

The Federal Government in a bid to further boost the growth in foreign exchange earnings, create new jobs, facilitate economic diversification, industrialisation and provide access to foreign technology, came up with its export processing zones (EPZs) policy. EPZ is regarded as a customs area where an enterprise is allowed to import plant, machinery, equipment and raw materials, process them, and then export them to the world market, under security and without paying duty. To facilitate better understanding of the above assertions, the Managing Director of a would-be client approached you for the explanations of the relevant provisions of the Nigerian Export Processing Zones Act Cap. N107 LFN 2004 (as amended) and Companies Income Tax Act Cap. C21 LFN 2004 (as amended). Required:

a

Discuss SIX special tax incentives for enterprises operating in an export processing zone.

12 marks
b

Explain the penalties for non-compliance with section 55(1) of CITA (as amended). (3 Marks) 156 NIGERIAN TAX RATES 1. CAPITAL ALLOWANCES Initial % Annual % Building Expenditure 15 10 Industrial Building Expenditure 15 10 Mining Expenditure 95 Nil Plant Expenditure (excluding Furniture & Fittings) 50 25 Manufacturing Industrial Plant Expenditure 50 25 Construction Plant expenditure (excluding Furniture & Fittings) 50 Nil Public Transportation Motor Vehicle 95 Nil Ranching and Plantation Expenditure 30 50 Plantation Equipment Expenditure 95 Nil Research and Development Expenditure 95 Nil Housing Estate Expenditure 50 25 Motor Vehicle Expenditure 50 25 Agricultural Plant Expenditure 95 Nil Furniture and Fittings Expenditure 25 20 2. INVESTMENT ALLOWANCE 10% 3. RATES OF PERSONAL INCOME TAX Graduated tax rates and consolidated relief allowance of N200,000 or 1% of Gross Income, whichever is higher + 20% of Gross Income. Taxable Income (N) Rate of Tax (%) First 300,000 7 Next 300,000 11 Next 500,000 15 Next 500,000 19 Next 1,600,000 21 Over 3,200,000 24 After the relief allowance and exemption had been granted, the balance of income shall be taxed as specified in the tax table above. 4. COMPANIES INCOME TAX RATE: FINANCE ACT 2019 SPECIFIES: 30% (Large Company) 20% (Medium-Sized Company) 0% (Small Company) 5. TERTIARY EDUCATION TAX: 2% OF ASSESSABLE PROFIT (UP TO DECEMBER 31, 2021) 2.5% OF ASSESSABLE PROFIT (With Effect from January 1, 2022) 6. COMPANIES INCOME TAX RATE 30% 7. TERTIARY EDUCATION TAX (2% of Assessable Profit) 8. CAPITAL GAINS TAX 10% 9. VALUE ADDED TAX 7.5% 10. HYDROCARBON TAX 15% (Petroleum prospecting License and Marginal Fields Companies) 30% (Petroleum Mining Lease Companies) 157

Suggested answer

(a) Special tax incentives for enterprises in an export processing zone – section 18(1) of Nigeria Export Processing Zones Act Cap. N107 LFN 2004 (as amended). Approved enterprises within the zones shall be entitled to the following incentives:

i. Legislative provisions pertaining to taxes, levies, duties and foreign exchange regulations shall not apply within the zones;

ii. Repatriation of foreign capital investment in the Zones at any time with capital appreciation of the investment;

iii. Remittance of profits and dividends earned by foreign investors in the zones;

iv. No import or export licenses’ shall be required;

v. Up to 25% of production may be sold in the customs territory against a valid permit and on payment of appropriate duties;

vi. Rent-free land at construction stage; thereafter rent shall be as determined by the authority;

vii. Up to 100% foreign ownership of business in the zones allowable; and

viii. Foreign managers and qualified personnel may be employed by companies operating in the zones. Export processing zone allowance – section 35 of CITA (as amended)

i. An export processing zone allowance is granted to a company, which has incurred expenditure in its qualifying building and plant equipment in an approved manufacturing activity in an export processing zone. The rate is 100% capital allowance in any assessment year but the company will not be entitled to an investment allowance. Only the tax 173 written down value of the assets shall be carried forward at the end of the tax holidays.

ii. The profit or gains of a 100 percent export oriented undertaking established within and outside an export free zone shall be exempt from tax for the first three consecutive assessment years provided that;

• The undertaking is 100 percent export oriented;

• The undertaking is not formed by splitting or breaking up or reconstructing a business already in existence;

• It manufactures, produces and exports articles during the relevant year and the export proceeds form 75 per cent of its turnover;

• The undertaking is not formed by transfer of machinery or plants previously used for any purpose to the new undertaking or where machinery or plant previously used for any purpose is transferred does not exceed 25 per cent of the total value of the machinery of the undertaking; and

• The undertaking repatriates at least 75 per cent of the export earnings to Nigeria and places it in a domiciliary account in any registered and licensed bank in Nigeria.

b. Companies registered and operating in the zone shall comply with the provisions of section 55(1) of CITA (as amended) and render returns in the manner prescribed therein, to the Federal Inland Revenue Service, in order to enjoy the exemption from taxes, levies, duties and foreign exchange regulations in accordance with section 8 of the Act and relevant provisions of BOFIA 2020. All penalties prescribed in CITA and the Federal Inland Revenue Service (Establishment) Act, 2007, may apply to such companies in the event of non-compliance with section 55(1) of CITA.

Examiner’s report The question tests the candidates’ knowledge of the special tax incentives and penalties for enterprises operating in an export processing zone. About 80% of the candidates attempted the question but the performance was below average. The commonest pitfall was the candidates’ inability to explain special tax incentives for enterprises operating in an export processing zone. 174 Candidates are advised to pay attention to this particular aspect of the syllabus.

Marking guide Marks a. Special tax incentives (2 marks each for any six incentives) 12

b. Penalties for non-compliance with Section 55 (1) of CITA (as amended) Penalties prescribed in CITA and FIRS (Establishment) Act, 2007 3 Total 15 175 THE INSTITUTE OF CHARTERED ACCOUNTANTS OF NIGERIA

Source: ICAN Pathfinder, Skills Level Examination, Taxation, May 2023, Question 7

November 2023 diet

0 objective and 7 theory
Time allowed: 31/4 hours (including 15 minutes reading time). Attempt five out of seven questions.
0 objective7 theory105 theory marks set
No.SectionMarksCovers
Q1Section A (compulsory)Personal income tax of a retired employee turned proprietor, including gratuity, life assurance and the consolidated ...
Q2Section B20The law and the Revenue practice on a change of accounting year end, and assessable profits for the years affected
Q3Section B20Composition of the Joint Tax Board and four functions of the State Board of Internal Revenue
Q4Section B20The records of the two trustees of Olalomi Children Settlement created in favour of the three children - Olami, Olamb...
Q5Section C15Exempt instruments, electronic documents received in Nigeria, duty on contracts and the electronic money transfer levy
Q6Section C15Functions and powers of the Nigeria Customs Service Board
Q7Section C15Raposa Nigeria Limited, a company located in Sambisa Forest, Kutunwegi State of Nigeria, commenced operations on Nove...

Theory questions Written questions

1
Theory question 1Section A (compulsory)

Alhaji Nura Imam, having spent over 20 years as an employee of Apex Limited, retired on November 1, 2020. On January 2, 2021, he registered a business under the name of Nura Imam Enterprises. The profit or loss account of the enterprise for the year ended December 31, 2021, is as follows: N N Revenue: Gross profit 35,000,000 Profit on sale of property, plant and equipment (PPE) 925,000 Rental income received (gross) 750,000 Dividend received (gross) 624,800 37,299,800 Expenses: Salaries and wages 7,200,600 Rent and rates 600,000 Transport and traveling 285,000 Printing, photocopying and stationery 71,300 Newspapers and periodicals 42,500 Postages and communications 96,800 Legal expenses 1,800,000 Repairs and maintenance 124,000 Security charges 120,000 General expenses 2,840,000 Allowance for doubtful debts 311,000 Bad debts 28,000 Bank charges 275,000 Depreciation 1,650,000 (15,444,200) Net profit for the year 21,855,600 139 You were provided with the following additional information: N (i) Salaries and wages include: Allowance paid to the proprietor’s cousin who is a student at Olympia University 720,000 Salary paid to the domestic staff of the proprietor 600,000 Salaries of other employees 5,880,600 7,200,600 (ii) Rent and rates consist of: N Rent paid for space occupied as the private residence of the proprietor 180,000 Rent paid for space used for business purposes 420,000 600,000 (iii) Legal expenses comprise: N Cost of renewing a long lease 240,000 Cost of defending traffic offence 180,000 Cost of defending a tax appeal 320,000 General legal advisory services 1,060,000 1,800,000 (iv) General expenses include: N Audit fees 1,000,000 Donation to proprietor’s church 350,000 Medical expenses on the proprietor’s sister 220,000 Amount misappropriated by the Chief Accountant 1,270,000 2,840,000 (v) Agreed capital allowance on qualifying capital expenditure was N1,240,000. (vi) Alhaji Imam received a gratuity of N4,000,000 during the year. (vii) Alhaji Imam is blessed with five children, all within the ranges of 10 to 21 years. (viii) The proprietor has a life assurance policy on which he pays a premium of N1,200,000 annually.

RequiredCompute the personal income tax payable by Alhaji Nura Imam for the relevant assessment year. (30 Marks) 140
Suggested answer

Nura Imam Enterprises Computation of income tax liability For assessment year 2022 N N Net profit per accounts 21,855,600 Add: Disallowable expenses: Allowance paid to the proprietor’s cousin 720,000 Salary paid to the domestic staff of the proprietor 600,000 Rent paid for space occupied as the private residence of the proprietor 180,000 Cost of renewing a long lease 240,000 Cost of defending traffic offence 180,000 Cost of defending a tax appeal 320,000 Donation to proprietor’s church 350,000 Medical expenses on the proprietor’s sister 220,000 Amount misappropriated by the Chief Accountant 1,270,000 Allowance for doubtful debts 311,000 Depreciation 1,650,000 6,041,000 27,896,600 Deduct: Non-taxable income Profit on sale of property, plant and equipment (PPE) 925,000 Dividend (gross) 624,800 1,549,800 Adjusted profit 26,346,800 Deduct: Capital allowances 1,240,000 Income from trade 25,106,800 Gratuity 4,000,000 Total income 29,106,800 Tax exempt items: Life assurance premium 1,200,000 Gratuity 4,000,000 (5,200,000) Gross income 23,906,800 Consolidated relief allowance: (N200,000 or 1% of N23,906,800, whichever is higher, plus 20% of N23,906,800) (5,020,428) Chargeable income 18,886,372 147 Tax payable N K First N300,000 @ 7% 21,000.00 Next N300,000 @ 11% 33,000.00 Next N500,000 @ 15% 75,000.00 Next N500,000 @ 19% 95,000.00 Next N1,600,000 @ 21% 336,000.00 Next N15,686,372 @ 24% N18,886,372 3,764,729.28 Tax payable 4,324,729.28

NOTE: The rental income was received gross which means no withholding tax was suffered at source, hence, no set off is available on the rental income in accordance with section 79 of CITA (as amended)

Examiner’s Report The question tests the candidates’ knowledge of the computation of personal income tax. This being a compulsory question, about 100% of the candidates attempted the question. The performance of the candidates was good. The commonest pitfall of the candidates was their inability to compute the consolidated relief allowance. Candidates are advised to read widely and be conversant with the provisions of the Personal Income Tax Act Cap. P8 LFN 2004 (as amended) before sitting for subsequent examinations to enhance better performance.

Marking guide Marks Marks Heading - Name of enterprise

- Computation of income tax liability - Assessment year 2022 1 1 1 Net profit per accounts 1 Disallowable expenses: (1 mark for each correct expense) Non – taxable income: (1 mark for each correct income) Capital allowances Gratuity 11 2 1 1 Tax exempt items: (1 mark for each correct item) Consolidated relief allowance: 2

- N200,000 or 1% of N23,906,800 1 148

- 20% of N23,906,800 1 - Correct amount (N5,020,428) 1 3 Tax payable: (1 mark for each correct answer) Total 6 30

Source: ICAN Pathfinder, Skills Level Examination, Taxation, November 2023, Question 1
2
Theory question 2Section B
20 marks
a 5b 3

Forward Nigeria Limited is a company incorporated in Nigeria for the manufacture of electronic items. The company has been in business for a long time and makes up accounts to June 30, every year. The company decided to change its accounting year end to September 30, every year. The adjusted profits for the following periods are as follows: N Year ended June 30, 2014 2,700,000 Year ended June 30, 2015 3,300,000 Period ended September 30, 2015 1,500,000 Year ended September 30, 2016 4,200,000 Year ended September 30, 2017 3,600,000 You are given the following additional information: (i) Incomes were overstated as follows: - June 30, 2015 N250,000 - September 30, 2016 N280,000 (ii) Expenditures were understated as follows: - June 30, 2014 N160,000 - September 30, 2017 N150,000 Required:

a

What is the provision of the law when a business decides to change it’s accounting year end?

5 marks
b

What is the practice of the Revenue in relation to the provisions of the law?

3 marks
c

Compute the assessable profits for all relevant years of assessment affected by the change of accounting date rules, taking into consideration the provisions of the law and the practice of the Revenue. (12 Marks) 141

Suggested answer

a. Rules on a change of accounting date Whenever a company fails to make up its accounts to its normal year-end, the assessable profits of the company for the year of assessment in which that failure occurs as well as the following two years shall be computed on such basis as the Service in its discretion may determine.

b. The manner in which the FIRS exercises its discretion, in practice, is as follows:

i. Determine the year of assessment in which the company failed to make up accounts to its normal year-end;

ii. Identify the two (2) years of assessment next following (i) above;

iii. Compute the assessable profits for the three (3) years of assessment in (i) and (ii) above using the existing accounting dates, that is, the old accounting dates;

iv. Compute the assessable profits for the three (3) years of assessment in (i) and (ii) above using the new accounting dates;

v. Obtain the sum of the assessable profits for the three (3) years for each of the computations in (iii) and (iv) above; and

vi. Choose the higher of the assessable profits for the 3 years in (v) above.

Note: The provision in Section 29(2) CITA confers on FIRS the discretion to determine the basis of assessment on a change of accounting date. In exercising this discretion, the FIRS may assess the year of change and the two following assessment years on actual basis instead of preceding year basis. This, it will do, if using the basis, produces a higher assessable profits of the three (3) years put together. 149

c. Forward Nigeria Limited Computation of the assessable profits For the relevant assessment years Accounting year 2014 2015 2016 2017 N N N N Adjusted profit 2,700,000 3,300,000 4,200,000 3,600,000 Deduct: Income overstated 0 (250,000) (280,000) 0 Expenditure understated (160,000) (150,000) Revised adjusted profit 2,540,000 3,050,000 3,920,000 3,450,000 Computation based on old accounting date Year of assessment Basis period Assessable profit N 2016 1/7/14 - 30/6/15 3,050,0000 2017 1/7/15 - 30/6/16 1,500,000 +(9/12 × N3,920,000) 4,440,000 2018 1/7/16 – 30/6/17 (3/12×N3,920,000)+(9/12×N3,450,000) (N980,000 + N2,587,500) 3,567,500 11,057,500 Computation based on new accounting date Year of assessment Basis period Assessable profit N 2016 1/10/14 - 30/9/15 (9/12 × N3,050,000) + N1,500,000 3,787,500 2017 1/10/15 - 30/9/16 3,920,000 2018 1/10/16 – 30/9/17 3,450,000 11,157,500 The tax authority will assess 2016 to 2018 assessment years using the new accounting date as the computed total of assessable profits which amounted to N11,157,500 is higher than that based on old accounting basis (N11,057,500). 150

Examiner’s report The question tests the candidates’ knowledge of the rules of change in accounting date, practice of the Revenue, and computation of the relevant assessments based on change in accounting date. About 60% of the candidates attempted the question but the performance was average. The common pitfalls of the candidates were their inability to explain the practice of the Revenue when a taxpayer changes his accounting date. Some of the candidates could not compute the assessable profits for all the relevant assessment years based on the rules of change in accounting date. Candidates are advised to read relevant texts on taxation, ICAN Pathfinders and Study Text.

Marking guide Marks Marks a. Provision of the law when a business changes its accounting date - year of assessment in which the failure occurs 2 - As well as the following two Years 2 - Computation of assessable profits on such basis as the Board in its discretion may determine 1 5

b. Practice of the Revenue (½ mark for each of the correct six points) 3

c. Computation of assessable profits for all the relevant years of assessment Heading 1/4 Computation of the revised adjusted profits 1/4 Adjusted profit (½ mark for each correct figure) 2 Income overstated (½ mark for each correct figure) 1 Expenditure understated (½ mark for each correct amount 1 Computation based on old accounting date: Year of assessment (1/4 mark for each correct year) ¾ Basis period (½ mark for each correct year) 1½ Assessable profit (½ mark for each correct year) 1½ Computation based on new accounting date: Year of assessment (1/4 mark for each correct year) ¾ Basis period (½ mark for each correct year) 1½ Assessable profit (½ mark for each correct year) 1½ 12 Total 20 151

Source: ICAN Pathfinder, Skills Level Examination, Taxation, November 2023, Question 2
3
Theory question 3Section B
20 marks
a

Tax administration in Nigeria involves the practical interpretations and application of the tax laws. The bodies charged with the administration of tax in Nigeria are the Federal, State and Local Governments. The tax authorities of these tiers of governments derive their power from Federal laws. The tax laws allow all tiers of government to establish their own authorities. The administration of taxation in Nigeria is, therefore, vested in various tax authorities depending on the type of tax under consideration. You are required to: i. State the composition of the Joint Tax Board (3 Marks) ii. Outline FOUR functions of the State Board of Internal Revenue (3 Marks) iii. State FIVE levies and taxes collectible by Local Government Revenue Committee. (5 Marks)

b

In line with the provisions of the revised National Tax Policy (NTP) in 2017, explain the roles and responsibilities of the following stakeholders: i. The government (3 Marks) ii. The taxpayers (3 Marks) iii. Revenue agencies (3 Marks)

Suggested answer

a. i. Composition of Joint Tax Board (JTB) The JTB consists of:

• Executive Chairman of the Federal Inland Revenue Service as Chairman;

• A representative from states of the federation with experience in tax;

• The Secretary, who shall be ex-officio appointed by the Federal civil service

• Commission; and

• The Legal Adviser of the FIRS who acts as the Legal Adviser to the JTB.

ii. Functions of State Board of Internal Revenue (SBIR) The functions of SBIR are as follows:

• Ensuring the effectiveness and optimum collection of all taxes and penalties due to the government under relevant laws;

• Making recommendations where appropriate to the JTB on tax policy, tax reform, tax legislation, tax treaties and exemptions as may be required from time to time;

• Appointing, promoting, transferring and discipline of employees of the State Internal Revenue Service (SIRS);

• Doing all such things as may be deemed necessary and expedient, for the assessment and collection of the tax and shall account for all sums so collected, in a manner to be prescribed by the Commissioner; and

• Generally controlling the management of the State Service on matters of policy, subject to the provisions of the law setting up the State Internal Revenue Service.

iii. Taxes and levies to be collected by Local Governments These include:

• Shops and kiosks rates;

• Tenement rates;

• On and off liquor license fees;

• Slaughter slab fees;

• Marriage, birth and death registration fees;

• Naming of street registration fee, excluding any street in the State Capital;

• Right of occupancy fees on lands in rural areas, excluding those collectible by the Federal and State Governments;

• Market taxes and levies excluding any market where State Finance is involved;

• Motor park levies;

• Domestic animal license fees;

• Bicycle, truck, canoe, wheelbarrow and cart fees, other than a

• mechanically propelled truck;

• Cattle tax payable by cattle farmers only;

• Road closure levy; 152

• Radio and television license fees (other than radio and television transmitter);

• Radio license fee (to be imposed by the local government of the State in which the car is registered);

• Illegal parking fees;

• Public convenience, sewage and refuse disposal fees;

• Customary burial ground permit fees;

• Religious places establishment permit fees;

• Signboard and advertisement permit fees; and

• Wharf landing charge, where applicable.

b. The roles and responsibilities of the following stakeholders in the revised National Tax Policy (NTP), 2017 are as follows:

i. The government All levels and arms of government, ministries, extra-ministerial departments and agencies where applicable shall:

• Implement and regularly review of tax policies and laws;

• Provide information on all revenue collected on a quarterly basis;

• Ensure adequate funding, administrative and operational autonomy of tax authorities; and

• Ensure a reasonable transition period of between three and six months before implementation of a new tax.

ii. The taxpayers A taxpayer is a person, group of persons or an entity that pays or is liable to tax. The taxpayer is the most critical stakeholder and primary focus of the tax system. The taxpayer shall consider tax responsibilities as a civic obligation and constant duty that must be discharged as and when due. The taxpayer shall be entitled to:

• Relevant information for the discharge of tax obligations;

• Receive prompt, courteous and professional assistance in dealing with tax authorities;

• Raise objections to decisions and assessments and receive response within a reasonable time;

• A fair and impartial appeal; and

• Self-representation or by any agent of choice, provided an agent acting for financial reward shall be an accredited tax practitioner.

iii. Revenue agencies Any agencies responsible for the collection and administration of revenue shall:

• Treat the taxpayer as a customer;

• Ensure efficient implementation of tax policies, laws and international treaties;

• Facilitate inter-agency co-operation and exchange of information; 153

• Undertake timely audits and investigations;

• Undertake tax awareness and taxpayers’ education; and

• Establish a robust process to prevent, detect and punish corrupt tax officials

Examiner’s report The question tests candidates’ knowledge of the composition and functions of the organs of tax administration with emphases on Joint Tax Board, State Board of Internal Revenue, and Local Government Revenue Committee. Additionally, candidates are expected to explain the roles and responsibilities of the government, taxpayers, and revenue agencies under the revised National tax policy (NTP), 2017. About 70% of the candidates attempted the question but the performance was average. The commonest pitfall of the candidates was their inability to explain the roles and responsibilities of the government, taxpayers, and Revenue agencies under the revised National tax policy (NTP), 2017. Candidates are advised to read widely and make use of the Institute’s Pathfinder and Study Text in their preparations for subsequent examinations.

Marking guide Marks Marks a.(i) Composition of the Joint Tax Board (1 mark for each member subject to a maximum of 3 members) 3

(ii) Functions of the State Board of Internal Revenue (1 mark for each function subject to a maximum of 3 functions) 3

(iii) Levies and taxes collectible by Local Government Revenue Committee (1 mark for each levy subject to a maximum of 5 levies) 5 11

b. Roles and responsibilities of stakeholders in National Tax Policy (NTP) (i) The government (1 mark for each role subject to a maximum of 3 roles) 3 (ii) The taxpayers (1 mark for each role subject to a maximum of 3 roles) 3 (iii) Revenue agencies (1 mark for each role subject to a maximum of 3 roles) 3 9 Total 20 154

Source: ICAN Pathfinder, Skills Level Examination, Taxation, November 2023, Question 3
4
Theory question 4Section B
20 marks
a 14b 6

The records of the two trustees of Olalomi Children Settlement created in favour of the three children - Olami, Olambe and Olaide, revealed the following as at December 31, 2020: N Rental income (gross) 398,900 Trading income 210,000 Dividend (gross) 196,000 Profit on sale of non-current assets 600,000 142 The following additional information were made available: (i) The interest received was from the Gbogbo-Ero Commercial Bank Limited. (ii) Other allowable expenses amounted to N23,000. (iii) Each beneficiary was entitled to a quarter of the net distributable income. (iv) Fixed annuity to the beneficiaries was N42,000 (gross) to be shared equally. (v) Trustee’s remuneration per trust deed was fixed - N25,000 each and 2.5% of total computed income. (vi) The trustees made discretionary payments to: Olami - N10,000; Olambe - N34,000 and Olaide - N29,000. (vii) The agreed capital allowance was N87,600. (viii) Administrative and other expenses amounted to N106,000. You are required to compute:

a

The net income assessable in the hands of the trustee

14 marks
b

Assessable income in the hands of each beneficiary

6 marks
Suggested answer

a. Olalomi Children Settlement Computation of net income assessable in the hands of the trustees N N Income: Rental Income (gross) 398,900 Dividend (gross) 196,000 Profit on sale of non-current assets 600,000 Trading income 210,000 Capital allowance (87,600) 122,400 Total income 1,317,300 Less authorised payments: Administrative expenses 106,000 Fixed annuity 42,000 Other allowable expenses 23,000 Trustee’s remuneration

- Fixed (2 trustees) 50,000 - Variable (2.5/102.5 × (N1,317,300 – N221,000) 26,739 247,739 Computed income 1,069,561 Discretionary payments:

- Olami 10,000 - Olambe 34,000 - Olaide 29,000 (73,000) Net computed income 996,561 Distribution to beneficiaries:

- Olami (1/4 ×N996,561) 249,140.25 - Olambe (1/4 ×N996,561) 249,140.25 - Olaide (1/4 ×N996,561) 249,140.25 (747,420.75) 249,140.25 Less Franked investment income: Dividend (196,000.00) Amount taxable in the hands of trustees 53,140.25

b. Computation of assessable income of each beneficiary Olami Olambe Olaide N N N Fixed annuity 14,000 14,000 14,000 Discretionary payment 10,000 34,000 29,000 Share of distributable Income 249,140.25 249,140.25 249,140.25 Assessable income 273,140.25 297,140.25 292,140.25 155

Examiner’s report The question tests the candidates’ knowledge of the taxation of trustees and beneficiaries in a settlement. About 70% of the candidates attempted the question but performance was fair. The common pitfalls of the candidates were their inability to compute the variable remuneration of the trustees and instead of computing the fixed remuneration for two trustees as stated in the question, they computed for one trustee. Candidates are advised to read ICAN Study Text and Pathfinders as this topic is adequately covered in them.

Marking guide Marks Marks a. Net income assessable in the hands of the trustees

- Name of company ½ - Computation of net income assessable in the hands of the trustee ½ - Rental income ½ - Dividend (gross) ½ - Profit on sale of non-current assets ½ - Trading income ½ - Capital allowance ½ Authorised payments: Administrative expenses 1 Fixed annuity 1 Other allowable expenses 1 Trustees’ remuneration – Fixed 1 - Variable 1½ Discretionary payments: - Olami ½ - Olambe ½ - Olaide ½ Distribution to beneficiaries: - Olami ½ - Olambe ½ - Olaide ½ Dividend 1 Amount taxable in the hands of the trustee 1 14 b. Assessable income in the hands of each beneficiary Names: Olami ½ Olambe ½ Olaide ½ Fixed annuity (½ mark for each correct amount) 1½ Discretionary payment (½ mark for each correct amount) 1½ Share of distributable income (½ mark for each correct amount) 1½ 6 Total 20 156

Source: ICAN Pathfinder, Skills Level Examination, Taxation, November 2023, Question 4
5
Theory question 5Section C
15 marks
a 3b 3c 3

Stamp duties are duties basically on instruments (defined to include written document). Stamp duties are governed by Stamp Duties Act Cap. S8 LFN 2004 (as amended), which provides for the levying of duties on certain matters specified in the Act, effective April 1, 1993.

RequiredIn relation to the Act and other relevant circulars issued, explain the following:
a

THREE instruments exempted from stamp duties

3 marks
b

When electronic documents are regarded as received in Nigeria

3 marks
c

Duty on contracts

3 marks
d

Electronic money transfer levy (6 Marks) 143

Suggested answer

a. Instruments exempted from stamp duties Instruments that are specifically exempted are as follows: (i) Those relating to agreements between the Federal Government and other foreign governments; (ii) Instruments relating to reconstruction and amalgamation, subject to specified condition under section 104(1) of the Act;

(iii) Transactions and sales of properties of a company under liquidation arising from a compulsory winding up by a court or creditors’ voluntary winding up; (iv) Based on Central Bank circular number CBN/GEN/DMB/02/006 dated January 15, 2016, titled “Currency and Remittance of Statutory Charges or Receipts to Nigerian Postal Service under the Stamp Duties Act”, the following transactions are exempted from stamp duties:

• Transactions relating to savings accounts holders, salary accounts or students savings accounts;

• Payments and deposits for self to self-transactions whether inter or intra-bank; and

• Payments for goods supplied or services rendered if the amount is under N1,000, payment of salaries or wages, pensions, gratuities, etc;

(v) Section 56 of the Finance Act, 2019, exempts the following “exempt receipts” and “general exemptions” from stamp duties;

• Exempt receipts: Receipts given by any person in a regulated securities lending transaction carried out under regulation issued by the Securities and Exchange Commission

• General exemptions which include the following:

• Shares, stocks or securities transferred by a lender to its approved agent or a borrower in furtherance of a regulated securities lending transaction;

• Shares, stocks or securities returned to a lender or its approved agent by a borrower in pursuant to a regulated securities lending transaction; and

• All documents relating to a regulated securities lending transactions carried out under regulations issued by the Securities and Exchange Commission; and

(vi) Share transfer based on FIRS information circular on “clarifications on the provisions of the Stamp Duties Act” No: 2020/05 dated April 29, 2020. 157

b. When Electronic documents are regarded as received in Nigeria Documents, receipts or instruments executed outside Nigeria but received in Nigeria must be presented for stamping in accordance with sections 7(3)(a), 23(3) and 47 of the SDA, within: (i) 10days in the case of charter parties; (ii) 30days in the case of instruments subject of ad valorem stamp duties; or (iii) 21days in any other instance. For an electronic document, receipt or instrument executed outside Nigeria to be regarded as received in Nigeria, it must be:

(i) Retrieved or accessed in or from Nigeria; (ii) Stored or an electronic copy of it is also stored on a device (including a computer, magnetic storage, etc) and brought into Nigeria; or (iii) Stored or an electronic copy of it is also stored on a device or computer in Nigeria

c. Duty on contracts It is the responsibility of any corporate body or Ministry, department or agency (MDA) to charge stamp duty at a rate of 1% of the contract value excluding value added tax (VAT) on all contracts issued to third party vendors. Thereafter, the stamp duties collected should be remitted to the Service.

d. Electronic money transfer levy Section 89A of the Stamp Duties Act (as amended) states that: “There is imposed a levy, to be referred to as the Electronic Money Transfer Levy, on electronic receipts or electronic transfer for money deposited in any deposit money bank or financial institution, on any type of account to be accounted for and expressed to be received by the person to whom the transfer or deposit is made; (i) The levy shall be imposed as a singular and one-off charge of N50 on electronic receipts or electronic transfers of money in the sum of N10,000 or more; (ii) The Minister of Finance shall, subject to the approval of the National Assembly, make regulations for the imposition, administration, collection and remittance of the levy, including regulations relating to the auditing, accounting, allocation and distribution of arrears of the relevant stamp duties and Electronic Money Transfer Levies collected between 2015 and 2019 fiscal years within 30 days of the date when this Act becomes effective. Provided that Electronic Money Transfer Levies subsequently collected shall be distributed within 30 days following the month of collection. 158

(iii) Notwithstanding any formula that may be prescribed by any other law, the revenue accruing by virtue of the operation of this section, shall, on the basis of derivation, be distributed as follows:

• 15% to the Federal Government and the Federal Capital Territory, Abuja; and

• 85% to state governments.

Examiner’s report The question tests the candidates’ knowledge of the provisions of Stamp Duties Act Cap. S8 LFN 2004 (as amended) in relation to exempted instruments, when electronic documents are regarded as received in Nigeria, duty on contracts, and electronic money transfer levy. About 50% of the candidates attempted the question and performance was fair. Many of the candidates could not explain when electronic documents are regarded as received in Nigeria. Candidates are advised to read the Stamp Duties Act 2004 (as amended), the Institute’s Pathfinder and ICAN Study Text when preparing for the Institute’s examinations.

Marking guide Marks Marks a. Three instruments exempted from stamp duties (1 mark each for any instrument exempted subject to a maximum of 3 instruments) 3

b. When electronic documents are regarded as received in Nigeria (1 mark each for any condition subject to a maximum of 3 conditions) 3

c. Duty on Contracts

- Responsibility of any corporate body or ministry, department or agency to charge stamp duty 1

- Stamp duty to be calculated at 1% of the contract value excluding VAT 1

- Stamp duties collected should be remitted to the Service 1 3

d. Electronic money transfer levy (3 marks each for any point subject to a maximum of 2 points) 6 Total 15 159

Source: ICAN Pathfinder, Skills Level Examination, Taxation, November 2023, Question 5
6
Theory question 6Section C
15 marks
a 5b 10
a

The Nigeria Customs Service (NCS) is one of the major revenue generating agencies for the Federal Government of Nigeria. The establishment of the Nigerian Customs Service Board, which is under the control of the Federal Ministry of Finance, is contained in section 1 of the Nigerian Customs Service Board Act Cap.C45 LFN 2004 (as amended). The Board shall be responsible for the administration of the Customs and Excise Management Act.

RequiredExplain the functions and powers of the Board.
5 marks
b

It is expected that a schedule of Withholding Tax (WHT) payable should be prepared by applying the correct WHT rate on each transaction/payment made during the month. Thereafter, a cheque for the amount due to the Federal Inland Revenue Service is raised and forwarded together with the WHT schedule to one of the approved collecting banks for processing.

RequiredExplain FIVE contents of a WHT returns/payment schedule.
10 marks
Suggested answer

a. Functions of the Nigeria Customs Service Board The Board shall be responsible for:

(i) Formulating the general policy guidelines for the Nigeria Customs Service; and (ii) Administering the Customs and Excise Management Act and accordingly, the Board shall-

• Subject to the general control of the Minister, control and manage the administration of the customs and excise laws; and

• Collect the revenues of customs and excise and account for them in such manner as the Minister shall from time to time, direct. Powers of the Board The Board shall have power:

(i) To appoint persons to hold or act in all the offices in the Service, including power to make appointments on promotion or transfer and to confirm appointments; and (ii) To dismiss and exercise other disciplinary control over persons appointed pursuant to (i) above.

b. Contents of WHT returns/payment schedule Each withholding tax cheque, being paid to the Revenue must be accompanied with a payment schedule, which is a list of those who suffered the deductions that make up the cheque. The payment schedule must contain the following particulars:

(i) Name of the taxpayers who suffered the deductions; (ii) Their addresses; (iii) The nature of their activities/services and period covered; (iv) Their tax file numbers [now Tax Identification Number (TIN)]; (v) The total amount payable; (vi) The rate of tax applied; (vii) The amount of tax withheld; (viii) The balance paid to the taxpayer; (ix) The tax contract for which returns were being made; (x) The date of payment; (xi) The cheque number and date; (xii) The name of the bank through which remittance was effected; and (xiii) The period covered. 160

Examiner’s report The question tests the candidates’ knowledge of the functions and powers of Nigeria Customs Service Board and contents of a withholding tax (WHT) returns / payment schedule. Over 80% of the candidates attempted the question and performance was above average. The commonest pitfall was the candidates’ inability to explain the functions and powers of the Nigeria Customs Service Board. Candidates are advised to read relevant study materials and The Nigeria Customs Service Act, 2023, in order to enhance performance in future examinations.

Marking guide Marks a. Functions and powers of the Board (1 mark for each correct answer) 5 b. Contents of a WHT returns/payment schedule (2 marks for each correct point subject to a maximum of five points) Total 10 15

Source: ICAN Pathfinder, Skills Level Examination, Taxation, November 2023, Question 6
7
Theory question 7Section C
15 marks
a 3b 6

Raposa Nigeria Limited, a company located in Sambisa Forest, Kutunwegi State of Nigeria, commenced operations on November 1, 2017. The accounting year end was September 30. As a result of stiff government policy on the importation of rice which the company deals with, the going concerns of the business became threatened and the Board of Directors decided to cease operations on December 31, 2022. The adjusted profits for the relevant periods are as follows: N Period to September 30, 2019 2,100,000 Year ended September 30, 2020 2,400,000 Year ended September 30, 2021 3,640,000 Year ended September 30, 2022 6,300,000 Period to December 31, 2022 500,000 144 You are provided with the following additional information: (i) Bad debt in the sum of N120,000 which was written off in 2020 assessment year, was recovered in October, 2021. (ii) A sum of N20,000 was spent to recover the debt. (iii) An expenditure of N350,000 incurred in assessment year 2020, though considered in the statement of profit or loss was not paid until August, 2022. On cessation, the revenue authority intended to conduct a back-duty investigation and the taxpayer was duly informed. As a tax consultant, you have been invited to ascertain the assessable profits for the periods covered from the commencement of trade to cessation of business. You are required to:

a

State THREE reasons why a business may cease trading.

3 marks
b

Compute net terminal adjusted profit.

6 marks
c

Compute assessable profits for all the relevant years of assessment. (6 Marks) 145 NIGERIAN TAX RATES 1. CAPITAL ALLOWANCES Initial % Annual % Building Expenditure 15 10 Industrial Building Expenditure 15 10 Mining Expenditure 95 Nil Plant Expenditure (excluding Furniture & Fittings) 50 25 Manufacturing Industrial Plant Expenditure 50 25 Construction Plant expenditure (excluding Furniture and Fittings) 50 Nil Public Transportation Motor Vehicle 95 Nil Ranching and Plantation Expenditure 30 50 Plantation Equipment Expenditure 95 Nil Research and Development Expenditure 95 Nil Housing Estate Expenditure 50 25 Motor Vehicle Expenditure 50 25 Agricultural Plant Expenditure 95 Nil Furniture and Fittings Expenditure 25 20 2. INVESTMENT ALLOWANCE Up to August 31, 2023 (10%); and Finance Act 2023 (NIL) 3. RATES OF PERSONAL INCOME TAX Graduated tax rates and consolidated relief allowance of N200,000 or 1% of Gross Income, whichever is higher + 20% of Gross Income. Taxable Income (N) Rate of Tax (%) First 300,000 7 Next 300,000 11 Next 500,000 15 Next 500,000 19 Next 1,600,000 21 Over 3,200,000 24 After the relief allowance and exemption had been granted, the balance of income shall be taxed as specified in the tax table above. 4. COMPANIES INCOME TAX RATE: Finance Act 2019 specifies: 30% (Large Company) 20% (Medium-Sized Company) 0% (Small Company) 5. TERTIARY EDUCATION TAX: 2% of assessable profit (up to December 31, 2021) 2.5% of assessable profit (with effect from January 1, 2022) and 3% of assessable profit, with effect from September 1, 2023 (Finance Act 2023) 6. CAPITAL GAINS TAX 10% 7. VALUE ADDED TAX 7.5% 8. HYDROCARBON TAX 15% (Petroleum prospecting Licence and Marginal Fields Companies) 30% (Petroleum Mining Lease Companies) 146

Suggested answer

a. Possible reasons why a business could cease business include:

i. Government legislation – the Federal Government may declare the activities of a business illegal and thus this may lead to the end of such business; ii. Permanent dearth or inability of sourcing raw materials; iii. Loss of major market due to stiff competitors or economic prices; iv. Inability to settle the debt owed by the company; v. Loss of key personnel with technical know-how; vi. Agreement by the management of the company; vii. Liquidity problem; viii. Mismanagement of fund; ix. Complying with the order of the court through an application of creditors or debenture holders of the company; x. Failing objectives – continuous decline in profits; xi. Natural disaster, for example, fire, earthquake or flood disaster; xii. Death of all shareholders; e.t.c. 161

b. Raposa Nigeria Limited Computation of net terminal adjusted profit N The net terminal adjusted profit was 500,000

NOTE:

(i) Bad debts recovered in October 2021 must have been captured in the relevant accounting year.

(ii) Amount spent in recovering the debt must also have been captured in the same accounting year.

(iii) The expenditure of N350,000 was actually passed through the books before the year of cessation. Given the fact that the transactions occurred before the date of cessation, informed the decision to ignore same in the computation of the net terminal adjusted profit.

c. Raposa Nigeria Limited Computation of assessable Profit For the relevant assessment years N 2017 1/11/17 – 31/12/17 (2 months) (2/23 × N2,100,000) 182,609 2018 1/11/17 – 30/10/18 (12/23 × N2,100,000) 1,095,652 2019 1/11/17 – 30/9/18 (12/23 × N2,100,000) 1,095,652 2020 1/10/18 – 30/9/19 (12/23 × N2,100,000) 1,095,652 2021 1/10/19 – 30/9/20 2,400,000 2022 1/10/20 – 30/9/21 3,640,000 2023 1/10/21 – 30/9/22 6,300,000 2023 1/10/22 – 31/12/22 500,000 162

Examiner’s report The question tests the candidates’ knowledge of the possible reasons why a business could cease business, computations of net terminal adjusted profit, and assessable profits for the relevant assessment years on cessation of business. About 70% of the candidates attempted the question but the performance was below average. The common pitfall was that the candidates adjusted the terminal adjusted profit with pre – date of cessation transactions which would have been reflected in the relevant accounting years. Additionally, they could not compute assessable profits for all the relevant years of assessment. Candidates are advised to pay attention to this particular aspect of the syllabus when preparing for future examinations.

Marking guide Marks Marks a. Reasons why a business may cease trading (1 mark for each reason subject to a maximum of 3 reasons) 3

b. Computation of net terminal adjusted profit

- Net terminal adjusted profit (N500,000) 2 Treatments: Bad debts 1 Cost of recovery of bad debts 1 Expenditure of N350,000 1 Transactions before the date of cessation 1 6

c. Computation of assessable profits for all the relevant years of assessment Assessment year (1/4 mark for each correct assessment year) 2 Basis period (1/4 mark for each correct basis period) 2 Assessable profit (1/4 mark for each correct amount) 2 6 Total 15 163 THE INSTITUTE OF CHARTERED ACCOUNTANTS OF NIGERIA

Source: ICAN Pathfinder, Skills Level Examination, Taxation, November 2023, Question 7
Source and reference. These questions come from the Institute of Chartered Accountants of Nigeria (ICAN) Pathfinder for the Skills Level Examination, Taxation, 2023. When you use them, please cite the source, for example: ICAN Pathfinder, Skills Level Examination, Taxation, May or November 2023. Each question carries its own reference and a button to copy it.